Catholicism: The Mary Mystery
Now, before I begin, lest you think that I am 'Catholic bashing', I can assure you,
I am not. Nor am I suggesting that those who follow the Catholic faith are, by
definition, not saved. Luke tells us in the book of Acts, verse 17:11 that we are
to be Bereans, testing every teaching against scripture.
Paul writes, "All scripture given by inspiration of God, and profitable for
doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.
2 Timothy 3:16.
My point is to merely take a intellectual look at the teachings of the RCC and
compare them to scripture, which I give all authority as the Word of God.
The biggest difference between the Protestant and Roman Catholic (RCC)
Churches is the issue of authority. Where the Protestant church was founded on
the principal of "sola scriptura" (the Word of God stands alone), the church of
Rome holds that their authority is on an equal footing with scripture, this being
affirmed in 1545ad - (Tradition granted equal authority with the bible).
On what basis does the RCC give themselves the authority to be on an equal
footing with the Word of God?
The words of Jesus as recorded in Matthew 16:18: And I also say to you that
you are Peter, and on this rock I will build My church, and the gates of Hades
shall not prevail against it.
The RCC maintains that this passage was Jesus instituting their church, with Peter
as its head (and first pope). The Protestant church maintains that Jesus was
referring to Himself as the rock on which the church would be built. According to
the RCC, the gates of hell will not prevail against their organization. According to
Protestants, the gates of hell would not prevail against the Lord.
Because of this interpretation, the RCC deemed that the doctrinal decisions made
by their church leaders were in fact on an equal footing with scripture. When
decisions are made and edicts proclaimed that seem to conflict with scripture, as
this article will document, the RCC interpretation is binding over any other
interpretation of the Word of God.
Ironically, it wasn't Paul or James, but Peter himself who negated this line of
thinking and clarified that Christ was indeed referring to Himself, not Peter and
not the Catholic church. The book of Acts records his comments on this...
Acts 4:11-12 "This is the stone which was rejected by you builders, which has
become the chief cornerstone. Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is
no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved."
Additionally, I submit for your review, the story in the gospels where Jesus was
out in the wilderness fasting and was tempted by Satan. For those of you
following along in your bibles, I am referencing the 4th chapter of the Gospel of
Matthew, verses 1 - 10.
After 40 days and 40 nights, the devil came to Jesus and said to Him, "If you are
the Son of God, command these stones to turn to bread". Jesus replied, "It is
written, man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from
the mouth of God".
Well, Satan had millennia to study scripture. He figured that he could play this
game.
He then took Jesus to the highest point at the temple in Jerusalem and said to
Him, "If you are the son of God, throw yourself down - for it is written, He shall
give his angels charge concerning you. In their hands they shall bear you up, lest
you dash your foot against a stone". To which Jesus replied, "It is written, do not
tempt the Lord your God".
Not willing to give up that easily, Satan then took Jesus to the highest mountain
where they could see over the land and all of the kingdoms within it. He gave it
one last shot - "All these things I will give you if you will fall down and worship
me". Jesus replied, "Away with you Satan, for it is written, you shall worship the
Lord your God and Him only shall you serve".
Now, one would have to conclude that Jesus was a smart guy, right? At least
smart enough to think on His feet when presented with the challenges of the
devil. Did Jesus start making things up as He went along? Did He lay down new
interpretations and create ground breaking precedents? No, He did not. What He
did in fact do was rely on the Word of God... "it is written". If it's good enough
for Jesus in such a predicament, shouldn't it be good enough for us in every day
life? Shouldn't it be good enough for the RCC?
Here is a listing of extra-biblical decrees made over the years by the RCC. This
article is designed to only focus on what I will call the Mary Mystery, her ascent
in status via the church of Rome over the years, and what it means to the Vatican
today.
From that list, I am going to bullet point the progress made by the RCC to take
Mary from her human state to the state of Mother of the Church.
431AD - Marian Worship begun
600 - Prayers directed to Mary (Ave Maria added in 1508)
995 - Cannonization of saints
1854 - Immaculate conception of Mary (her sinlessness)
1950 - Assumption of Mary (she never died)
1954 - Mary proclaimed Queen of Heaven
1965 - Mary proclaimed Mother of the Church
1980 - Mary proclaimed Spouse of the Holy Spirit
Mary's perpetual virginhood
"Based on the Protoevangelium of James, (Circa 120AD), it is written and
accepted by the RCC that Joseph was a widower with children from his former
marriage. According to this document, when Mary's birth was prophesied, her
mother, St. Anne, vowed that she would devote the child to the service of the
Lord, like Samuel had been by his mother (1 Sam. 1:11). Mary would thus serve
the Lord at the Temple, as women had for centuries (1 Sam. 2:22). A life of
continual, devoted service to the Lord at the Temple meant that Mary was not
able to live the ordinary life of a child-rearing mother, and so she was vowed to
perpetual virginity"
Scripture says nothing about Joseph being a widower. Scripture does however tell
of the siblings of Jesus. Matthew 13:55 names his brothers as James, Joses,
Simon, and Judas. Mark 6:3 confirms this and additionally references the sisters
of Jesus in the process. Luke 16:6 differentiates between Judas, the brother of
Jesus and Judas Iscariot who betrayed Jesus.
Giving the benefit of the doubt - let's assume that these men (and women) were
not the blood brothers and sisters of Jesus, but merely step-siblings from a
previous marriage as the Catholic church asserts.
Does scripture address this? Why yes, it does. Matthew 27:56 clearly says that
Mary, the mother of Jesus, is also the mother of James and Joses. Mark 15:40
confirms this, as does Mark 16:1.
So we can see by scripture that Mary was indeed not a virgin for the duration of
her lifetime, being the mother of several children, other than Jesus.
Mary's sinless nature and the Immaculate Conception
The RCC maintains that Mary was sinless throughout her life. "But by a special
intervention of God, undertaken at the instant she was conceived, she was
preserved from the stain of original sin and its consequences."
What does scripture say about this?
Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Friend, there is no 'out' clause there. 'All' in this reference is the Greek word, pas
(Strong's 3956) which means: all, all things, every, all men, whosoever, everyone,
whole, all manner of, and/or every man. There is no wiggle room for assumption
here. When the Lord said 'all' he meant 'all'.
Additionally, Mary confirmed her own sinful nature and need of a savior as
recorded in Luke 1:47. Scripture is clear on this one as well.
Hebrews 7:26 For such a High Priest was fitting for us, who is holy, harmless,
undefiled, separate from sinners, and has become higher than the heavens
Jesus was the only person to have ever lived a sinless life. To claim that Mary did
as well is to say that Christ is 'one of' the sinless, not THE sinless and without
Christ's unique sin free life, where does that leave His sacrifice? Where does that
leave the promise of salvation?
Mary's Position
Was Mary blessed? YES!! Mary was chosen among women to be the vessel that
bore the Messiah. The bible honors Mary as the mother of Jesus and calls her
"blessed...among women" (Luke 1:28) but not above women. What does this
mean to us today? Nothing. No offense intended, but Mary's job is done.
Matthew 12:46-50 tells the story of Jesus speaking to the multitudes. In the
middle of his sermon, he is interrupted and informed that his mother and brothers
are outside of the building and wish to talk with him. Does he stop speaking and
go to them? No. His response was, "Who is my mother and who are my
brothers?" and indicating the crowd He was addressing, He continued, "Here are
my mother and my brothers, for whoever does the will of the Father in heaven is
my brother, my sister and my mother".
Jesus made it clear to those He was teaching that Mary was no more or less a
sinner in need of a savior than anyone else in that room. Was He being
disrespectful? No - He was making a point. That point is that we all have the
responsibility of doing the will of the Father, no matter how great or small.
The Heavenly Assumption of Mary
Enoch "walked with God; and he was not, for God took him" (Gen. 5:24). He
was translated so as no to see death (Heb. 11:5). And then there was Elijah, who
was taken up into heaven in a fiery chariot (2 Chron. 2:1-13).
Scripture is silent about the death of Mary. This is where the RCC fills in the gap.
"The doctrine of the Assumption says that at the end of her life on earth Mary
was assumed, body and soul, into heaven, just as Enoch, Elijah, and perhaps
others had been before her. Some people think Catholics believe Mary
"ascended" into heaven. That's not correct, Christ, by his own power, ascended
into heaven. Mary was assumed or taken up into heaven by God. She didn't do it
under her own power".
"The Church has never formally defined whether she died or not, and the
integrity of the doctrine of the Assumption would not impaired it she did not in
fact die, but the almost universal consensus is that she did die. Pope Pius Xll, in
Munificentissimus Deus (1950), defined that Mary. "after the completion of her
earthly life"--note the silence regarding her death--"was assumed body and soul
into the glory of Heaven." In short her body wasn't allowed to corrupt, it was not
allowed to remain in a tomb".
The RCC theory that Mary was "assumed" into heaven has no basis whatsoever
in scripture. The doctrine of the assumption is pure conjecture, and dare I say it,
wishful thinking on the part of the RCC. The RCC needs for Mary to have been
assumed into heaven, for without that particular piece of the puzzle, the
remaining two topics have nothing to rest on.
From catholic.com: "Where is the proof from Scripture alone? Strictly speaking,
there is none. It was the Catholic Church that was commissioned by Christ to
teach all nations and to teach them infallibly, guided, as he promised, by the Holy
Spirit until the end of the world (John 14:25, 16:13). The mere fact that the
Church teaches the doctrine of the Assumption as something definitely true is a
guarantee that it is true".
What we have here is the fact that there is nothing to back this 'doctrine' up with
the exception of the fact that the Catholic Church says its so, and by the mere
fact that the Catholic Church believes it can't err, they hold it to be true by default.
Prayers to Mary
Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with thee. Blessed art thou amongst women
and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus. Holy Mary, Mother of God, pray for
us sinners, now, and in the hour of our death. Amen.
Catholicism teaches that Christ is a stern, wrathful judge who cannot be
approached by sinners. It teaches that Mary, on the other hand, is a tender,
understanding, merciful intercessor who is more sympathetic and compassionate
than the Lord and will please our case to Him with the forceful persuasion of a
loving mother.
The practice of petitioning Marian intercession is to pray to Mary to ask her to
intercede as the mediatrix between man and God.
So where does this all come from?
Lets begin again with the Word of God.
1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men,
the Man Christ Jesus,
Scripture tells us that there is but ONE mediator between God and Man - that is
Jesus. The Church of Rome maintains that Mary and the saints are mediators as
well, based on:
1 Timothy 2:1 Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers,
intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men,
The RCC makes no distinction between intersession and mediation. Intercession
is praying to the Father for another, just as one would pray for the healing of a
friend. Mediation on the other hand, is the practice of believing your prayers are
heard only through another - a mediator or mediatrix.
Additionally, no distinction is made between the living and the dead. The claim is
that the dead are in heaven with the Lord and therefore can hear our prayers and
intercede with the Father on our behalf. Now, in the section above, I have
documented where the RCC agrees that Mary did indeed die (although in 1950
the wording was changed to say "her earthly life was completed").
So what does scripture tell us about communicating with the dead?
Deuteronomy 18:10-12 There shall not be found among you anyone who makes
his son or his daughter pass through the fire, or one who practices witchcraft,
or a soothsayer, or one who interprets omens, or a sorcerer, or one who
conjures spells, or a medium, or a spiritist, or one who calls up the dead. For
all who do these things are an abomination to the Lord, and because of these
abominations the Lord your God drives them out from before you.
Wow - harsh words from the Lord. Communicating with the dead is an
abomination?
Lets turn back to scripture and see if Jesus weighs in at all on the subject of
prayer...
Matthew 6:7-8 And when you pray, do not use vain repetitions as the heathen
do. For they think that they will be heard for their many words. Therefore do
not be like them. For your Father knows the things you have need of before you
ask Him.
Apparently, the message that Jesus was trying to get across is that we don't have
to chant things over and over as if the Lord is not listening to us. I guess you
could say that not only is it a quantity vs quality thing, but additionally it is written
that the Lord knows our needs, meaning that we don't need for anyone who
predeceased us to petition the Lord on our behalf.
In the next set of verses, Jesus gives us the model prayer...
Matthew 6:9 In this manner, therefore, pray: Our Father in heaven, Hallowed
be Your name.
Addressed to the father directly with thanksgiving
Matthew 6:10 Your kingdom come. Your will be done On earth as it is in
heaven.
Offering submission to God's will
Matthew 6:11 Give us this day our daily bread
Prayer for needs and provision
Matthew 6:12 And forgive us our debts, As we forgive our debtors.
Confession of sins asking our forgiveness and forgiveness of others, intercession
for others
Matthew 6:13 And do not lead us into temptation, But deliver us from the evil
one. For Yours is the kingdom and the power and the glory forever. Amen.
Prayer for protection as we don the armor of God and praise for His glory
Now, no where in here do we see Jesus instructing us to pray to any entity other
than the Father. No where. If we were to ask for intersession from those who
went before us to petition the Father, then why wouldn't Jesus Himself have told
us about it? Why did it take until the 7th century for the RCC to tell us about it?
Just something to think about.
One other way of looking at this is your view of God. Ask yourself this -
1. Is God big enough to hear my prayers or does He need a 'switchboard' to help
Him?
2. Does God care so little about me that He will only listen to the requests of
people appointed by the Catholic church and not me directly?
3. In giving the power of an audience with the Father is, as the RCC maintains,
Mary's 'call', then what if she is too busy or deems me too unimportant?
God is omnipotent. Mary is not. She was a mere mortal, just as the rest of us are
today.
Our God is a Jealous God - Exodus 34:14 for you shall worship no other god,
for the Lord, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God. The RCC maintains that
they do not worship Mary, but isn't praying for her help giving her preference
over praying to the Father to ask for His help?
Even more so than this, God is a loving God. He desires (not requires) a
relationship with us. He wants to be first in our lives, not relegated to second
place. He longs to her from us - so why shut Him out?
The Queen of Heaven?
"Since Mary is Jesus' mother, the fact that she is also the Mother of God is
inescapable, for if Mary is the mother of Jesus, and if Jesus is God, then Mary is
the Mother of God".
This sounds innocent enough, right? Well, lets look again to scripture...
John 1:1,14 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and
the Word was God....And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us.
Revelation 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the
Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
You see, Jesus was God before Mary was even born. Mary is the vessel that
produced the Messiah from the line of David, she is not the Mother of God.
Now, assuming that you disagree with me and you do feel that Mary was the
Mother of God - how far are you willing to take it? In 1954, Mary was elevated
to Queen of Heaven. In 1965, Mother of the Church. Quite a promotion, eh?
Pope Pius XII proclaimed Mary to be the Queen of Heaven on October 11,
1954. The full text of the Encyclical on Proclaiming the Queenship of Mary can
be found here. I will only cite two of his comments in this.
But the Blessed Virgin Mary should be called Queen, not only because of her
Divine Motherhood, but also because God has willed her to have an exceptional
role in the work of our eternal salvation.
Now, in the accomplishing of this work of redemption, the Blessed Virgin Mary
was most closely associated with Christ; and so it is fitting to sing in the sacred
liturgy: "Near the cross of Our Lord Jesus Christ there stood, sorrowful, the
Blessed Mary, Queen of Heaven and Queen of the World."
Does scripture address this? The 44th chapter of the book of Jeremiah is
dedicated to the subject of there being a "Queen of Heaven", past or present and
the Lord's opinion of that particular classification.
In addition to her titles of "Mother of God" and "Queen of Heaven" Mary is also
known as the "Spouse of the Holy Spirit".
Citing Prudentius in his February 2, 1974 writing, Apostolic Exhortation For the
Right Ordering and Development of Devotion To the Blessed Virgin Mary (full
text here), Pope Paul VI proclaims this marital relationship between the Holy
Spirit and Mary, "The unwed Virgin espoused the Spirit". And from the writing of
Pope John Paul II, On the Mystery and Worship of the Eucharist penned on
February 24, 1980 (full text here), we have:
"In order that this unity and the constant and systematic collaboration which leads
to it may be perseveringly continued, I beg on my knees that, through the
intercession of Mary, holy spouse of the Holy Spirit and Mother of the Church,
we may all receive the light of the Holy Spirit."
How far will the RCC go in the promotion of this woman's role? Would you
believe me if I told you that there is a movement afoot to elevate her once again
to being the sinless, Co-redemptrix of salvation? Given the comments from Pope
Pius XII above, it shouldn't surprise you. Lets look at where the church stands
today on this issue.
In 1996, the Pontifical International Marian Academy was asked by the Vatican
to investigate the possibility of redefining the Marian titles to include " Mediatrix,
Coredemptrix and Advocate". Their findings were absolute on the Mediatrix and
Advocate roles but with no binding precedent, they were inconclusive on the title
of "Coredemptrix".
The group that is in charge of this groundswell effort is Vox Populi (Voice of the
People), led by Dr. Mark Miravalle. Their mission is to gain the approval of the
5th Marian Dogma, her elevation to co-redemptrix for salvation. The outline of
the request can be seen on their website at http://www.voxpopuli.org/info.asp.
So how do they explain this deviation from scripture?
"This "collaboration" or "co-operation" or "participation" of the Mother of Jesus
with her Son in the redemptive work of salvation is referred to in the Church as
"Marian coredemption," or more specifically, Mary is referred to as "the
Coredemptrix with the Redeemer."
In other words, "Jesus couldn't have done it without her" and voxpopuli feels that
we therefore need to recognize that and declare Mary the Co-redemptrix of
salvation. On their website, they cite many examples of the current Pope, John
Paul II, using the terminology "co-redemptrix" in his addresses, using the same
definition as they. What they are asking for is that the doctrine of co-redemptrix
no longer just be referenced, but that it become official church doctrine,
ExCathedria.
Vox populi released a statement on June 11, 2000 announcing that their petition
for the 5th Marian Dogma, the Papal Definition of Our Mother Co-redemptrix,
Mediatrix of all Graces, and Advocate, and the Triumph of Her Immaculate Heart
had surpassed the 6,000,000 signatures mark.
Bottom Line
Peter confirmed that Jesus is the rock on which the church should be built, not
himself and not the Catholic (or any other) Church. Matthew, Mark and Luke
confirmed that Mary was not only the mother of Jesus, but of several other
children as well. Mary confirmed that she herself was a sinner in need of a savior.
Friend, Mary did not ask for this attention. Better yet, I feel quite comfortable in
saying that Mary would be saddened and ashamed that people are placing so
much undue importance on her role in this day and age. Mary had a role to fill
and she obeyed the Lord and filled that role. Her job is now done. Let her rest in
peace.
